Originally Posted by _tunic_
I just read the wiki page about pop music
and agree with the following definition:
which means for me that Pixies is not pop. Late Beatles is not pop, early Beatles is
from that perspective, maybe, but from other perspectives on that very same page (e.g pete seeger) then they are all pop. but then by that definition maybe nirvana's "nevermind" is a pop album, as it was crafted professionally to fit sub-pop's requirements. no?
though the post-67 definition as "opposed to rock music" if you see the notes comes from "the oxford companion to music" and im not sure they include the simon firth economic argument. do they?
ETA: does that simon firth definition negate the possibility of indie pop or alt pop???