[!@#$%!]

ok suchfriends, this is a quickie, cuz i have a loaded schedule coming up, but the notion that each buendia represents one latin american nation is the first thing that jumps at me as arbitrary (there are others).

i very highly doubt there was such intent in the writer, but if you can demonstrate (with texual examples) that this connections exist, please do so. that's thesis material but if you have the info at your fingertips please convey.

here's an example of a good simple demonstration like the one i'd like: my advisor, who was teaching a class in cronica de una muerte anunciada, said that the cuckold bayardo san roman is french or of french origin or loaded with french references.

bayard = a legendary horse from the chansons de geste
san roman = sans roman = sin novela (without a novel) or sin... romance? since his girl he doesn't get to fuck, cuz santiago nasar bonked her first (or not? or yes? he was good at disguises). it's everything in the text.

anyway, a nice verbal joke and probably a putdown by garcia marquez on the french cartesian mindset which he outspokenly detested, but nowhere by any means a "symbol". symbols are simple, good characters are almost fractally complex. there's always more to them.

go read el olor de la guayaba, i promise it will make you LOLOLOLOLOLOLOL.

ok haa ha that was for glice.

anyway gotta go, but thanks for answering.