Thread: why do brits put r's where there are none??
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Old 10.25.2010, 04:38 PM   #38
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Quote:
Originally Posted by demonrail666
Colin Farrell's overly exaggerated 'Oirish' accent aside, law, prononounced 'loor' ends more with a vowel sound in that the the 'r' reasly just accents the 'oo', givinn the transitional 'r' that comes between 'law' and 'and' the same role as it would have between 'here' and 'it'.

Don't American's do the same thing with 'law', only making it more like "laar". Would they not have the same "laar-r-and the, laar won" thing? Or is it just another case of American exceptionalism?

i've never heard anybody say they watch "laa-r-and order"

"law" stays clear of getting mixed up with order (it's American segregationism)

though i've heard plenty hicks saying they have "ideaRs"

or "i'm gunna waRsh the truck"

ps- here's the original version of the song by the crickets

clearly separated (but equal!)

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=nxmlcTVFvic

it was the 50s-- not a good time for civil rights
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